Watchman Fellowship's Guide to Marking Your Bible
Written by: Branch, Rick/ Walker, James Posted on: 05/07/2003
Category: Cults / Sects / Non Christian Religions and Topics
Watchman Fellowship's Guide To Marking Your Bible
This list is not intended to be a comprehensive list of all
verses misused by the various cults. Rather, it is a sampling of
the more prevalent verses twisted by numerous cults. Each cultic
interpretation will be followed by a Christian response. These
responses are not intended to be an exhaustive explanation. Each
reader should search out further information found in numerous
conservative Bible commentaries. Cross referencing will be
provided where applicable.
Authorship: Rick Branch and James Walker
Reading the Chart:
A. Reference - -> Genesis 1:1
B. Scripture - In the beginning God created the heavens and the
C. Cult Identification - (MORMONISM)
D. Cultic Interpretation - The term "created" is understood to
mean organized for according to Mormonism, matter is eternal.
E. Christian Explanation - (CHRISTIAN) The term "create" in the
Hebrew means to form something from nothing.
-> Genesis 1:1 - In the beginning, God created the heaven and the
(MORMONISM) The term "created" is understood to mean organized
for according to Mormonism, matter is eternal. They explain that
Heavenly Father simply organized, for according to Mormonism,
matter is eternal. They explain that Heavenly Father simply
organized pre-existent matter into the shape of the Earth (Mormon
Doctrine, Bruce R. McConkie, p.218).
(CHRISTIAN) The term "create" in the Hebrew means to form
something from nothing. Thus, it was not simply an organization,
but rather a true creation.
-> Genesis 1:2 And the earth was without form, and void; and
darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God
moved upon the face of the waters.
(JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES) They have changed the term "spirit of God
to "active force" in their version of the Bible, the New World
Translation. By doing so they have denied the personality of the
(CHRISTIAN) There is absolutely no linguistic basis for such a
change. See also John 15:26; 16:13 and Acts 13:2 for information
on the personality of the Holy Spirit.
-> Genesis 1:26-27 - And God said, Let us make man in our image,
after our likeness... So God created man in his own image, in the
image of God created he him; male and female created he them.
(MORMONISM) This verse is used to prove that since man is
created in the image of God and since man has a body of flesh and
bone, then God the Father must likewise have a body of flesh and
bone. According to Mormonism, the Father is simply a resurrected
man (Gospel Principles, pp.6 & 9).
(CHRISTIAN) This verse is normally understood to refer to man
being created in the moral and spiritual nature of God, not in a
physical sense. Remember Jesus' words in John 4:24, "God is a
-> Genesis 9:4 But flesh with the life thereof, which is the
blood thereof, shall ye not eat.
(JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES) This verse is often used to deny the
faithful Jehovah's Witness a necessary life saving blood
transfusion. For years the Watchtower has taught that to submit
to a blood transfusion is comparable to cannibalism. That is, to
sustain ones own life by means of another human's life (Insight
on the Scripture, Vol.1, pp.344-346).
(CHRISTIAN) First, the Bible never discusses blood transfusion.
The people in the days of Genesis had no such medical technology.
Second, concerning the idea of cannibalism, the digestive system
and the circulatory system are separate bodily systems. Third,
the Orthodox Jewish community, who follow the Old Testament
commandments to a meticulous detail, have no aversion to blood
transfusion. They understand that to not eat blood has nothing
to do with the medical practice of blood transfusion.
-> Genesis 11:7 Go to, let us go down, and there confound their
language, that they may not understand one another's speech.
(MORMONISM) This verse is often used to prove the Mormon view
that there are many gods. "Let us" is plural and therefore there
must be more than one god (Mormon Doctrine, p.576-577).
(CHRISTIAN) Remembering that Christianity is based upon the
biblical doctrine of the Trinity, this verse is in perfect
harmony with numerous other passages. For instance, Isaiah
45:18, 22 and 46:9 which clearly state that there is only "one
-> Genesis 32:30 - And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel:
for I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved.
(MORMONISM) Many times this passage is used to prove that a man
can see God face to face and live. Joseph Smith, the founder of
Mormonism claimed to do this very thing in 1820 when he
supposedly saw God the Father and God the Son -- face to face
(Pearl of Great Price, Joseph Smith History, vs.17).
(CHRISTIAN) The Bible is quite clear that no one can see God face
to face and live (Exodus 33:20). Jesus made it very clear that
no one had ever seen God the Father (John 1:18). Genesis 32:1
explains that the encounter which Jacob was to have was with an
angel. It is obvious that Jacob was not actually wrestling God,
for in Genesis 32:27 the being whom Jacob wrestles ask the
question, "What is thy name?" God would not need to ask Jacob
his name. Thus, what did Jacob mean when he said "face to face"?
It is a Hebrew idiom of familiarity or an expression of
relationship. The fact that Jacob did not wrestle with God is
also confirmed by Hosea 12:2-4. Rather he wrestled with the
angel of the Lord.
-> Genesis 40:20-22 And it came to pass the third day, which was
Pharaoh's birthday, that he made a feast unto all his servants:
and he lifted up the head of the chief butler and of the chief
baker among his servants...But he hanged the chief baker...
(JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES) This verse is often used by the Watchtower
to show that the celebration of birthday's was originally a pagan
holiday. They explain that no one should celebrate a birthday
today, for only pagans do so (Insight on the Scripture,
(CHRISTIAN) While it is true that pagans celebrate birthdays, so
did people with whom God was well pleased. See Job 1:4 and 3:1-3
for the celebration and cursing of "his day...wherein I was
born". Also, Luke 1:14 mentions that the birth of John the
Baptist was celebrated. Not even the Watchtower would claim he
was a pagan. Further, the angels in Luke 2:13-14 seem to be
celebrating the birth of Jesus at Bethlehem.
-> Exodus 33:11 And the Lord spake unto Moses face to face, as a
man speaketh unto his friend.
(MORMONISM) Used in conjunction with Genesis 32:30, this verse is
also used to prove the ability to see God and live.
(CHRISTIAN) As with so many cases, the cults take one verse out
of context and twist it unto their own destruction. Though the
Mormons would have their prospective converts read this verse
alone, Chapter 33 is self-explanatory. In verse 20 it is stated,
"Thou canst not see my face: for there shall no man see me, and
live." What then did Moses mean when he said face to face?
Remember, this is as one friend speaks to another, it was a
relationship. Did Moses actually see anything at this encounter?
Verse 22-23 speaks of God's hand and back parts. If God the
Father is only an exalted resurrected man as the Mormon Church
states, how could his hand cover Moses as He passed by?
Obviously the language used here is anthropomorphic (see Numbers
11:18 reference elsewhere). It was God's glory that Moses saw.
-> Numbers 11:18 And say thou unto the people, Sanctify
yourselves against tomorrow, and ye shall eat flesh: for ye have
wept in the ears of the Lord..."
(MORMONISM) This passage along with several others are used to
prove that God the Father has a body of flesh and bone. The
Mormon will explain, the Bible states, God has ears. Also
Deuteronomy 11:12 says, "the eyes of the Lord they God are always
upon it", thus God has eyes. If He has ears and eyes, he must
have a head and shoulders upon which to set His head. Remember
the account in Genesis 3:8 when "the Lord God was walking in the
garden in the cool of the day?" To be walking, the Mormons
reason, would necessitate that He has feet, legs and hips.
Further Amos 1:8 stated the Lord "will turn mine hand against
Ekron..." meaning that the Lord must have hands, arms and
shoulders. Hence, the Lord has a body of flesh and bone
(Doctrine and Covenants 130:22).
(CHRISTIAN) All of these passages as well as numerous other are
using what is known as anthropomorphic language. That is,
ascribing physical attributes to a spiritual being. It is giving
human characteristics to God so that Man may in turn understand
the character and nature of God. How can a finite sinful being
such as man understand an infinite and perfect being such as God.
It is impossible to do so. However with the use of
anthropomorphism the task is made easier. Thus, the passages are
to be understood in a symbolic nature when they speak of God's
hands, feet, arms, legs, eyes, mouth, etc. Also, if the Mormons
wish to maintain that these passages must be interpreted
literally, then they must also interpret Psalm 91:4 literally.
"He shall cover thee with his feathers, and under his wings shalt
thou trust: his truth shall be thy shield and buckler." Now God
has the appearance of a magnificent shield carrying chicken
rather than an exalted man!
-> Psalm 2:7 I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto
me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.
(MORMONISM) According to Mormon theology, Jesus was born into a
preexistent spirit world by procreation between Heavenly Father
and Heavenly Mother. This verse speaks of that pre-earthly birth
(Mormon Doctrine, p.589-590).
(CHRISTIAN) The best method of interpretation is to accept the
meaning provided by the Bible itself. The New Testament contains
the proper interpretation (and fulfillment) of this passage.
Acts 13:33 states: "God hath fulfilled the same unto us their
children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also
written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I
begotten thee." Thus, the Psalm is a prophetic reference to the
resurrection of Jesus -- not to some cultic doctrine of pre-
-> Psalm 82:6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are
children of the most high.
(MORMONISM) The belief in polytheism or many gods is one of the
cardinal doctrines of Mormonism. This passage is used to support
the idea that men can become gods (Achieving A Celestial
(CHRISTIAN) While Mormonism would have the uninformed believe
that it is just another Christian denomination, in truth, it is
in an entirely different theological category. Christianity is
monotheistic -- the belief in only one God. Mormonism is
polytheistic -- the belief in many gods. Not only the belief in
many gods but the belief that all worthy Mormon men can one day
become a god themselves.
This passage refers to the unrighteous rulers of Israel who "are
gods" not will become gods as Mormonism teaches. Psalm 82 speaks
of God judging these gods. Verse 2 explains that they are evil
rulers who "judge unjustly" and accept the "wicked". In
addition, they are apparently not defending the poor or helping
the needy. Verse 5 explains that these "gods" are walking in
darkness. These are not the attributes of God, but rather the
evil deeds of the unrighteous rulers in Israel. In addition,
these "gods" are warned of impending doom. Verse 7 explains that
though they may believe they are gods, they will "die like men!"
This type of "godhood" may be achievable by mankind but it is not
desirable nor is it pleasing to God. The Bible teaches there is
only one true God (Isaiah 43:10).
-> Psalm 115:16 - The heaven, even the heavens, are the Lord's:
but the earth hath he given to the children of men.
(JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES) This verse is used to convince the
unsuspecting potential convert that they have no hope of going to
heaven. In Watchtower theology, only 144,000 will be allowed
into heaven with the Lord. The remainder of the faithful
Jehovah's Witnesses will remain forever on earth (Insight on the
Scripture, vol. 1, p.668).
(CHRISTIAN) Contrary to Watchtower teaching, Jesus taught that He
was going to prepare a place for His followers. Not simply a
few, but for all His followers. See John 14:1-3, Hebrews 3:1 and
-> Ecclesiastes 9:5 - For the living know that they shall die;
but the dead know not any thing, neither have they any more a
reward; for the memory of them is forgotten.
(JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES) This is often used by the Watchtower to
demonstrate that the soul goes to the grave until the
resurrection. They teach a doctrine known as soul sleep. That
is, when people die, they simply cease to have consciousness
until the resurrection when Jehovah will raise them from their
long slumber in the grave. This verse is also used to support
their doctrine of annihilation. This teaches that the wicked,
the non-Jehovah's Witness, will be destroyed, the "memory of them
is forgotten" (Insight on the Scripture, Vol.1, p.675).
(CHRISTIAN) First, with the reference to soul sleep, the apostle
Paul's words explain that this could not be true doctrine. For
Paul was torn with a dilemma. Was it better to stay alive and
work for Jesus or to die and be with Him (Phil. 1:23-24)? If
Paul expected to go to the grave and stay there for centuries,
this would not be such a difficult decision. Second, concerning
annihilation, no less an authority than Jesus explained the
realities of a place called hell - a place where many will spend
-> Isaiah 9:6 - For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is
given; and the government shall be upon his shoulders; and his
name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, the mighty God, the
everlasting Father, the Prince of Peace.
(JEHOVAH'S WITNESS) In Watchtower theology, Jehovah is known as
the Almighty God and Jesus is simply called a "mighty god."
Thus, the Jehovah's Witnesses will use this verse to prove that
Jesus is not Almighty, but rather only some type of lesser god
(Insight on the Scripture, Vol.1, p.77; Vol.2, pp 52-72).
(CHRISTIAN) The Bible teaches that there is only one true God
(Isaiah 44:10). Men, idols, and evil rulers are called Gods in
scripture but the context is clear that they are being referred
to as false gods, not the true God. Thus, were Jesus not truly
God, this prophetic statement would have been considered
blasphemy. Also, only a few verses later in Isaiah 10:20-21, as
well as in Jeremiah 32:18, Jehovah is called the "mighty God"
according to Watchtower's own New World Translation. Would
calling Jehovah a mighty God and referring to Jesus as a mighty
God mean the same thing? With reference to Jesus being only the
mighty God and Jehovah the Almighty, remember Jesus' words in
Matthew 28:18. He said He had "all power." Would that mean He
was Almighty? How can He have all power and yet not be almighty?
Further, Revelation 1:8 refers to the Alpha and Omega, the one
who "is to come, the Almighty." If Jesus is the one who is to
come, then He must also be the Almighty.
-> Isaiah 29:4 - And thou shalt be brought down, and shalt speak
out of the ground, and thy speech shall be low out of the dust,
and thy voice shall be, as of one that hath a familiar spirit,
out of the ground, and thy speech shall whisper out of the dust.
(MORMONISM) That is a prophecy of the coming forth of the Book of
Mormon which was found by Joseph Smith to have been buried in the
ground. Mormon theology explains that the term "familiar spirit"
means the reader is already familiar with the subject matter.
That is, the Book of Mormon has a familiar ring to it (A
Marvelous Work and a Wonder, LeGrand Richards, pp.67-68).
(CHRISTIAN) Actually Isaiah 29:1 explains this passage is a
prophetic utterance for the city Jerusalem, the "city where David
dwelt." Concerning the Mormon misunderstanding of the term
"familiar spirit" this simply demonstrates the Mormon General
Authorities lack of biblical knowledge. The term does not mean
to be previously acquainted with the subject, but rather is
descriptive of a person who consults evil spirits. Passages such
as Deuteronomy 18:10-11 explains that witches, wizards,
necromancers, and those who consult familiar spirits were to be
banished from the land. These things were abominable in the
sight of the Lord. Also, 2 Chronicles 33:5 declares that those
who practice witchcraft, seek out the advice of a wizard or
familiar spirits do "much evil" and cause the Lord to be angry.
The term familiar spirit in the Bible does not mean what the
Mormon church believes it to mean. Hence, it may be asked, do
they still wish to claim that the Book of Mormon has a familiar
-> Jeremiah 1:5 - Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee;
and before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee,
and I ordained thee a prophet unto the nations.
(MORMONISM) One of the more unique doctrines of the Mormon church
is the idea of the pre-existence. According to this doctrine,
everyone who has ever lived on the earth, who is alive today or
who ever will live on the earth was born in a pre-existence to
Heavenly Father and Heavenly Mother. This is not reincarnation,
but rather a pre-existent life in a spiritual realm with heavenly
parents. Mormons will explain that since Jeremiah speaks of God
knowing him prior to his birth, this proves the Mormon concept of
the pre-existence (Gospel Principles, pp.5-27).
(CHRISTIAN) Actually, this verse says nothing about a pre-
existent life. Rather, it speaks of God's foreknowledge. When
placed into a biblical context, this verse becomes very clear. In
Zechariah 12:1, the Lord explains when the spirit of man was
created. It was formed in man. It was not formed in some pre-
existent life, then later obtained a physical body. Further, if
the Mormon concept is true, then Job would have had an answer to
God's questions. For if Job were a pre-existent spiritual
being, conceived by Heavenly Father and Heavenly Mother, Job
could have answered the questions in Job 38:2 and 4. "Who is
this that darkeneth counsel by words without knowledge?... Where
was thou when I laid the foundations of the earth?" After a long
series of questions, what did Job say? In Job 40:5 he answered,
"Once have I spoken; but I will not answer: yea, twice; but I
will proceed no further." Had Job been in the pre-existent
spiritual realm as the Mormon church teaches, it would have been
very easy to answer this question. What then did Jeremiah mean
when he wrote his words in Jeremiah 1:5? The apostle Paul's
words will be a clarifying point. He wrote in Romans 4:17 that
God "calleth those things which be not as though they were." God
knows the future and thus knew Jeremiah prior to his birth. Not
because of a pre-existent spiritual life, but rather because God
has foreknowledge of people and events.
-> Ezekiel 18:4 - Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the
father, so also the soul of the son is mine; the soul that
sinneth, it shall die.
(JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES) This verse is used in conjunction with
Ecclesiastes 9:5 to prove their doctrine of annihilation. The
Watchtower explains that this verse proves the soul is not
eternal but rather will be destroyed by Jehovah if the person has
been an evil person (Insight on the Scripture, Vol. 2, p.1007).
Thus the souls of mankind will have no conscious existence after
physical death and the lost will not go to a literal, eternal,
burning Hell but will be annihilated.
(CHRISTIAN) Taken in a strictly literal sense, if this
understanding of the verse were true, not even the Jehovah's
Witnesses would be able to survive certain annihilation, for
everyone has sinned. However, if the term soul in this passage
refers only to the physical body and the term "die" refers only
to physical death, then the Bible is consistent. In some
passages the Bible refers to soul as the physical life of humans,
elsewhere the same word is used to speak of the eternal,
spiritual aspect of man. In Luke 12:4-5 Jesus spoke of the
difference between killing the body and destroying the soul.
Also the soul is aware prior to the resurrection. In Revelation
6:9-11 the souls of the dead cried out for justice.
-> Ezekiel 37:16-17 - Moreover, thou son of man, take thee one
stick, and write upon it, For Judah, and for the children of
Israel his companions: then take another stick, and write upon
it, For Joseph, the stick of Ephraim and for all the house of
Israel his companions: And join them one to another into one
stick; and they shall become one in thine hand.
(MORMONISM) This passage is used by Mormon missionaries and
others to provide a biblical prophecy about the coming forth of
the Book of Mormon. It is explained that the sticks were
associated with scrolls or Old Testament writings. The stick of
Judah is the Bible and the stick of Joseph is the Book of Mormon.
The two become one in the hand of the Mormon user because they
both teach the same doctrines (Mormon Doctrine, p.767).
(CHRISTIAN) While it is true that this passage is a prophecy, it
is a terrible mistake to assume that it is a prophecy of the
coming forth of the Book of Mormon.
Ezekiel 37 is another example of simply allowing the context to
interpret the passage. What are the sticks? The next few verses
in the chapter explain precisely what is meant by this prophetic
passage. In verse 18 the question is asked, what does the
prophecy mean? The answer is then found in verses 19-22. The
two sticks represent the "two nations" of the northern and
southern kingdoms. The Lord says that by joining the two sticks
into one, the nations "shall be no more two nations, neither
shall they be divided into two kingdoms."
-> Daniel 10:13,21;12:1...Michael, one of the chief princes, came
to help me...Michael your prince...And at that time shall Michael
stand up, the great prince which standeth for the children of thy
(JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES) Throughout their history, the Watchtower
has repeatedly made reference to Jesus being Michael the
archangel. They believe Jesus to be the first and only thing
that Jehovah directly created. Thus, Michael, the great prince,
is actually Jesus (Insight on the Scripture, Vol.2,pp.393-394).
(CHRISTIAN) Were Jesus merely an angel His words in Luke 4:8
would have carried a condemning warning for Jehovah. Jesus
explains to Satan that only God should be worshipped. However,
in Hebrews 1:6 Jehovah tell all the angels to worship Jesus. If
Jesus were only an angel, who would He worship. Jesus would be
commanded to worship Himself, because "all" the angels were to
worship Jesus. Also, Jehovah in Hebrews 1:8, speaking to Jesus
says, "Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever." Thus, Jehovah
calls Jesus "God!" In addition, Philippians 2:9 explains that
Jesus has been given a name which is "above" every other name.
Would that include the name--Jehovah?
-> Amos 3:7 Surely the Lord God will do nothing, but he revealeth
his secret unto his servants the prophets.
(MORMONISM) Using this passage as justification for the their
latter-day revelation, the Mormon church teaches that its prophet
can provide information from God the same as did the prophets in
the Old Testament (Mormon Doctrine,p.605-609).
(CHRISTIAN) Because the word "prophet" appears to be the same in
both the Old and New Testaments, it is sometimes misunderstood.
Generally the role of the prophet in the Old Testament was one
who provided spiritual instructions from God for the nation.
They would give prophetic utterances, pointing always forward to
the coming of the Messiah. However in the New Testament the role
of the prophet took on a new dimension. Since the Messiah had
come, rather than pointing to that future day, they were to now
proclaim the day had arrived. Jesus' words in Matthew 11:13 will
help clarify this shift in the role of the prophet. He
explained, "For all the prophets and the law prophesied until
John." At the coming of John the Baptist, the role of the
prophet generally shifted towards that of proclaimer rather than
simply the foreteller.
This idea is reiterated in Hebrews 1:1-2 where it is explained
that God spoke in "times past unto the fathers by the prophets",
but today He has spoken to man in a personal manifestation -- His
Son, the Messiah. The New Testament role of a prophet is not
seen as a Moses figure leading all of God's people as a nation.
It is important to note that it is not impossible for God to use
a prophet in any role He wishes today. Christians usually point
out that the Mormon prophets fail the biblical test for being
true prophets (Deuteronomy 13 and 18).
-> Matthew 3:11 - I indeed baptize you with water unto
repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose
shoes I am not worthy to bear; he shall baptize you with the Holy
Ghost, and with fire.
(JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES) Using this verse in conjunction with
Genesis 1:1, the Watchtower explains that neither water nor fire
are persons thus the Holy Spirit is not a person. For how could
mankind be baptized with the Holy Spirit, if he were a person.
Instead, they state, the Holy Spirit is Jehovah's active force
(Insight on the Scripture, Vol.2,p.1020).
(CHRISTIAN) Using this line of reasoning, then Jesus must be a
non-person also. For both Romans 6:3 and Galatians 3:27 explain
that Christians have been baptized into Jesus. Certainly no
Jehovah's Witness would deny Jesus was a person. Also, the Holy
Spirit did things in Acts 13:2 that an active force would be
incapable of doing. Things such as "speaking" and "calling" Paul
and Barnabas to a certain task. Earlier in Acts 5:3-4, Peter
said Ananias and Sapphira had lied to the Holy Spirit. Only a
personal being can be lied to -- not an active force.
Electricity is an active force, but no one can lie to
->Matthew 5:48 Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father
which is in heaven is perfect.
(MORMONISM) Since God would never give a commandment that He did
not expect man to keep, it must be possible for Man to become
perfect (Mormon Doctrine, p.568).
(CHRISTIAN) Again, the words in the Bible become clear when the
Bible is allowed to interpret itself. What does the Bible say
about "perfect" men? Were there ever any perfect men who walked
the earth? Yes! Noah is said to have been "perfect" in Genesis
6:9 and Job was said to be "perfect" in Job 1:1. However, does
the word "perfect" mean without sin as the Mormon church would
interpret it? Does man have the capability to be perfect in the
same sense? The answer is no. For as Paul explains in Romans
3:23 "all" have sinned. That would certainly include both Noah
and Job. So what was meant by these passages? Noah had found
"grace" in the Lord's sight as Genesis 6:8 explains and Job was
upright because of his reverence for God's holiness. They had
not become sinless, but rather had found favor with God because
of their relationship with Him. The perfectness of which Jesus
speaks means to be complete or full. The same word used by Jesus
in this Matthew passage is the identical Greek word used in
Hebrews 5:14 which speaks of people who are of "full age" having
the ability to discern both good and evil. Thus Jesus was not
saying to be perfect in the sinless sense, but rather mature or
complete in the ability to judge good from evil.
-> John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with
God, and the Word was God.
(JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES) In their New World Translation, the
Watchtower has altered the last phrase of this verse to read,
"and the Word was a god." Because they deny the doctrine of the
Trinity and believe Jesus to be a creation of Jehovah, the
Watchtower attempts a strained translation to mask an obvious
reference to the Deity of Christ (Insight on the Scripture, Vol.
(CHRISTIAN) Aside from the fact that absolutely no qualified
Greek scholar, be they Christian or atheist, agrees with the
Watchtower's translation of this passage, there are still other
problems with the Jehovah's Witnesses interpretation. First, the
Jehovah's Witnesses would generally agree that there is only one
true God and that all other gods are false gods. The one true
God is Jehovah. However, they would have to admit that Jesus
also was a true God, for to do otherwise, would mean that the
only thing that Jehovah ever directly created was a false god!
Once this is admitted they are then left with two true Gods --
something the Bible categorically denies being possible. See for
example Isaiah 44:6, 8; 45:5-6, 18. Second, to say that Jesus is
a created being is refuted in John 1:2-3, the very next two
verses. The apostle John explains that Jesus created "all
things." How could Jesus, a created being according to
Watchtower theology, have created all things? There are two
categories in the Universe. There is the creator and there is
the creation. Either Jesus is a creation as the Jehovah's
Witnesses say, or He is the creator of all things as John 1:2-3
explains. He cannot be both.
-> John 10:16 - And other sheep I have, which are not of this
fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and
there shall be one fold, and one shepherd.
(MORMONISM) This verse is used to support the Mormon idea that
Jesus visited the American continent after His resurrection. The
other sheep are said to be the Nephites and Lamanites, the people
of the Book of Mormon (3 Nephi).
(CHRISTIAN) The disciples did not understand that Jesus was the
Messiah not only for the nation of Israel, but also for the
Gentiles. When Jesus spoke of His "other sheep," He was speaking
of the Gentiles who would flock to Him. He was not speaking of
future travel plans to the Americas. Acts 9:15 recounts Sa
Doc viewed 17718 times.